John uses phileo (in various forms) about 13 times
John uses phileo about 13 times.
Does he always use it for a lower or lesser form of love?
Again, no.
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The Father phileo loves the Son (John 5:20).
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Jesus phileo loved Lazarus (John 11:3, 36).
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God phileo loves the disciples because they love Jesus (John 16:27).
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The disciple whom Jesus phileo loved appears in John 20:2.
If phileo is inherently inferior, these verses raise serious problems. Why would the Father love the Son with an inferior love? Why would Jesus love His closest disciples that way?
The answer is straightforward: agape and phileo can function as near-synonyms. Context determines meaning.
Words Are Suitcases
Words carry meaning, but they don’t dictate it. Meaning is loaded into words by context and usage. In linguistic terms, this is called semantic range.
A word like “love” is a suitcase. What’s inside depends on where it’s going and how it’s used.
God can agape love sinners. Sinners can agape love darkness. The same word carries different content depending on the situation.
If agape truly meant only God’s perfect, holy love, the biblical authors would have protected it from being used otherwise. They did not.
A Better Reading of John 21
After engaging with thoughtful critique, I now think the most natural reading of John 21 is this: Peter is not offering Jesus a lesser love. He is offering the strongest relational language he knows.
Peter isn’t hedging. He’s saying, “You are family to me. You are my own flesh and blood.”
That reading honors the Greek, the narrative, and Peter’s restored relationship with Jesus.
Let’s stop overloading Greek words with meanings they don’t consistently carry. When we do, we often miss what Scripture is clearly saying.
Context, not vocabulary charts, is what reveals meaning.
And in John 21, the meaning is restoration, not semantic gymnastics.
This article on agape vs phileo originally appeared here.
